One thought on “Does Acts 15 Require Christians to Agree to Disagree Over Same-Sex Marriage?

  1. Dr. Peabody writes:

    “Indeed, to our point of immediate concern, did Paul write anything that labels same-gender marriage “porneia?

    The answer is “NO”.

    Succinctly put, the entire Bible is SILENT in that regard. For such an aspect of the institution of marriage simply did not exist in Biblical Israel, or in the Mediterranean world of Paul’s day.”

    The Bible is silent about this? Why then would Jesus have reiterated the passage in Genesis 2:24 “That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife (female), and they become one flesh,” and Paul repeat it in Ephesians 5:31? Obviously, they are talking about marriage between one man and one woman TO THE EXCLUSION of any other form of so called “marriage.”

    It is also obvious, from a number of passages in Paul’s writings, that ANY form of sexual activity between a man and a woman OUTSIDE of a man/wife marital bond, HOWEVER you want to define “marriage,” is immoral.

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